I can't get an intuitive understanding of why it's $2^{(\frac{n}{2})}$ and not $2^n$, where $n$ is the number of bits of which the key consists.
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migrated from security.stackexchange.com Oct 28 '11 at 13:27
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A collision is between two values. If you take a random pair of values you get a 1/2n chance of having a collision. With 2n/2 values you have about 2n-1 pairs, so you could expect about 1/2 chance of collision. (That's just the "intuitive way" of thinking about it; in practice, there are mathematical details.) |
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I think the simple way of looking at it is that it's because the number of pairs between items is roughly proportional to the square of the number of items. Consider:
If you look at these as sequences, the parallel between number of pairs and squares is fairly direct. For N items, the number of pairs of those items is 1+2+3+...N. For squares, instead of adding all the numbers, you add only the odd numbers. For example, 42 = 1+3+5+7 (the first four odd numbers). |
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