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Nov 15, 2023 at 7:21 comment added fgrieu @kelalaka: the proof uses that for all integers $e,u,v\in\mathbb N^*$, it holds $\gcd(e,u\,v)=1$ $\iff$ $(\gcd(e,u)=1$ and $\gcd(e,v)=1)$ [which itself follows from the fact that prime divisors of $u\,v$ are the union of prime divisors of $u$ and prime divisors of $v$]. That's instantiated with $u=p-1$, $v=q-1$, $u\,v=\varphi(p\,q)=\varphi(n)$.
Nov 14, 2023 at 20:52 comment added kelalaka I'm still expecting proof for the first part.
Nov 13, 2023 at 8:04 history edited fgrieu CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 12, 2023 at 21:15 history edited fgrieu CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 12, 2023 at 12:54 comment added Nicha59 Thank you so much , Your answer is very useful for me
Nov 12, 2023 at 12:33 history answered fgrieu CC BY-SA 4.0