Timeline for Is gcd(e,p−1)=1=gcd(e,q−1) similar to gcd(e,phi(n))=1?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Nov 15, 2023 at 7:21 | comment | added | fgrieu♦ | @kelalaka: the proof uses that for all integers $e,u,v\in\mathbb N^*$, it holds $\gcd(e,u\,v)=1$ $\iff$ $(\gcd(e,u)=1$ and $\gcd(e,v)=1)$ [which itself follows from the fact that prime divisors of $u\,v$ are the union of prime divisors of $u$ and prime divisors of $v$]. That's instantiated with $u=p-1$, $v=q-1$, $u\,v=\varphi(p\,q)=\varphi(n)$. | |
Nov 14, 2023 at 20:52 | comment | added | kelalaka | I'm still expecting proof for the first part. | |
Nov 13, 2023 at 8:04 | history | edited | fgrieu♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Polish
|
Nov 12, 2023 at 21:15 | history | edited | fgrieu♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Expand
|
Nov 12, 2023 at 12:54 | comment | added | Nicha59 | Thank you so much , Your answer is very useful for me | |
Nov 12, 2023 at 12:33 | history | answered | fgrieu♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |