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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:48 history edited CommunityBot
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Oct 23, 2013 at 12:57 comment added ratchet freak @mikeazo $(p−1)(q−1)$ is dividable by 4 so you can eliminate 3 out of 4
Oct 23, 2013 at 3:34 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackCrypto/status/392856625704611841
Oct 23, 2013 at 3:20 history edited makerofthings7 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 23, 2013 at 1:06 vote accept makerofthings7
Oct 23, 2013 at 0:37 answer added mikeazo timeline score: 3
Oct 23, 2013 at 0:32 history edited makerofthings7 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 23, 2013 at 0:26 history edited makerofthings7 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 23, 2013 at 0:22 comment added mikeazo you can also omit odd values for $\varphi$ since $p,q$ are prime (hence odd), $p-1,q-1$ are both even, so $(p-1)(q-1)$ is even.
Oct 22, 2013 at 23:57 history edited makerofthings7 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 22, 2013 at 23:52 history asked makerofthings7 CC BY-SA 3.0