Timeline for How difficult is it to brute force d in RSA: d = (1/e) mod φ in a CPT attack?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:48 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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Oct 23, 2013 at 12:57 | comment | added | ratchet freak | @mikeazo $(p−1)(q−1)$ is dividable by 4 so you can eliminate 3 out of 4 | |
Oct 23, 2013 at 3:34 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackCrypto/status/392856625704611841 | ||
Oct 23, 2013 at 3:20 | history | edited | makerofthings7 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Oct 23, 2013 at 1:06 | vote | accept | makerofthings7 | ||
Oct 23, 2013 at 0:37 | answer | added | mikeazo | timeline score: 3 | |
Oct 23, 2013 at 0:32 | history | edited | makerofthings7 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Oct 23, 2013 at 0:26 | history | edited | makerofthings7 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Oct 23, 2013 at 0:22 | comment | added | mikeazo | you can also omit odd values for $\varphi$ since $p,q$ are prime (hence odd), $p-1,q-1$ are both even, so $(p-1)(q-1)$ is even. | |
Oct 22, 2013 at 23:57 | history | edited | makerofthings7 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Oct 22, 2013 at 23:52 | history | asked | makerofthings7 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |