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Apr 27, 2012 at 2:25 vote accept Ashwin
Nov 21, 2012 at 15:36
Apr 27, 2012 at 2:25 vote accept Ashwin
Apr 27, 2012 at 2:25
Apr 26, 2012 at 0:35 comment added poncho @Ashwin: Well, an outline of a proof would look like: if $\gcd(e,p-1)=1$, and if $m_1 ≢ m_2\pmod p$, then ${m_1}^e ≢ {m_2}^e\pmod p$ (note: the proof of this relies on the primality of $p$). And, by symmetry, if $\gcd(e, q-1)=1$, and if $m_1 ≢ m_2\pmod q$, then ${m_1}^e ≢ {m_2}^e\pmod q$. Now, if we combine these two statements using the Chinese Remainder Theorem, we get: if $\gcd(e,\operatorname{lcm}(p-1,q-1))=1$ and if $m_1 ≢ m_2 \pmod{p\,q}$, then ${m_1}^e ≢ {m_2}^e\pmod{p\,q}$. Take the converse of that statement, and that's the statement you're asking about.
Apr 18, 2012 at 11:21 comment added Ashwin can, you atleast point me to the proof of what henrick hellstrom said - me1(modN)=me2(modN), because it will only happen if GCD(e,LCM(p−1,q−1))≠1.
Apr 15, 2012 at 11:35 history answered poncho CC BY-SA 3.0