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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:48 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://crypto.stackexchange.com/ with https://crypto.stackexchange.com/
Feb 26, 2016 at 13:24 comment added fgrieu @bayo15: assuming $(e\cdot d\bmod\varphi(n))=1$ or equivalently $e\cdot d\equiv1\pmod{\varphi(n)}\;$, the equality $(r^{e\cdot d}\bmod n)=r$ holds for integers $r$ with $0\le r<n$, while the congruence $r^{e\cdot d}\equiv r\pmod n$ holds for all integers $r$. I can't think of another interpretation of mathematically correct.
Feb 26, 2016 at 12:15 comment added bayo It's is obvious that r^ed mod n = r, as e*d mod phi(n) = 1 so this concept works (equals sign means "is congruent to"). However, what are the formal requirements for the random variable r so this is still mathematicaly correct? Thanks.
Apr 27, 2015 at 9:38 history edited fgrieu CC BY-SA 3.0
State another advantage of blinding with public exponent
Apr 27, 2015 at 5:55 history edited fgrieu CC BY-SA 3.0
polish
Apr 27, 2015 at 5:49 history edited fgrieu CC BY-SA 3.0
Add discussion about unusually large e, following comment
Apr 27, 2015 at 5:16 history edited fgrieu CC BY-SA 3.0
expand
Apr 27, 2015 at 5:09 comment added user10496 "...requires computing r^d (mod N), which is just as costly as the m^d (mod N) operation being protected" - right, that's why I thought reducing hamming weight might be helpful. "So all in all there's no appreciable savings..." - perfect, thanks.
Apr 27, 2015 at 5:09 vote accept CommunityBot moved from User.Id=10496 by developer User.Id=76
Apr 27, 2015 at 5:07 history answered fgrieu CC BY-SA 3.0