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Apr 12, 2017 at 13:40 comment added user38956 Are $1 \over s$ and $\epsilon$ interchangeable? Essentially this question crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/46545/… . @RickyDemer
Apr 8, 2017 at 14:28 history edited ckamath CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 8, 2017 at 13:47 comment added user991 "that the" ​ should be replaced with ending the sentence and starting a new sentence. ​ Otherwise, it seems to be correct now. ​ I wrote up a proof here. ​ ​ ​ ​
Apr 8, 2017 at 12:50 comment added ckamath @RickyDemer: I have made the change you suggested. 1.) Is it correct now? 2.) Could you elaborate your comment (i.e., how non-uniformity leads to equivalence) --- I don't quite grasp the difference.
Apr 8, 2017 at 12:47 history edited ckamath CC BY-SA 3.0
small o to constant c, as pointed out by @Ricky Demer
Apr 8, 2017 at 3:37 comment added user991 @DheerajMPai : ​ See my previous comment. ​ ​ ​ ​
Apr 8, 2017 at 3:36 comment added user991 They will become equivalent if ​ $\omega \hspace{.02 in}(1)$ ​ bits of non-uniformly are allowed, but otherwise, $\hspace{.91 in}$ one needs to replace the ​ o(1) s ​ with c and assert the existence of a positive $\hspace{1.38 in}$ constant c before quantifying over the adversaries. ​ ​ ​ ​
Apr 7, 2017 at 19:42 history edited ckamath CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 7, 2017 at 19:29 vote accept CommunityBot
Apr 7, 2017 at 19:07 history edited ckamath CC BY-SA 3.0
added 101 characters in body
Apr 7, 2017 at 19:01 history answered ckamath CC BY-SA 3.0