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Apr 3, 2021 at 15:46 vote accept Roman Gherta
Apr 2, 2021 at 8:47 comment added Roman Gherta Paul, related to your last paragraph: It is perfectly acceptable and practiced to restrict domains to make functions invertible, this is not cheating. But I am probably too lazy to follow though with this and the idea that an inverse exists, is enough for me, unless there is a big fundamental problem with this entire approach. Pre-image resistance problem(crypto term) we remove as discussed by eliminating collisions(I wish) and by making the range so small that it is actually feasible for my laptop to make these computations....
Apr 1, 2021 at 22:36 history edited Paul Uszak CC BY-SA 4.0
Longer answer given more time.
Apr 1, 2021 at 17:56 comment added Roman Gherta Applications... I guess it would be a first to say that you found a function sha256inv defined on a specific domain of hashes(the codomain/image computed above... maybe there is something special about that domain) for which sha256inv(hash)=string . And you can do this analytically without saving all these hashes as a map in some database.
Apr 1, 2021 at 17:56 comment added Roman Gherta So i need to compute the function Image... You are saying this to be sure the function is also surjective... So if I define the function as sha256prime() : 2^29 -> 2^256 , then this function is not surjective and definetely no inverse exists. And this is why I need to basicaly... brute force a 2^29 codomain. This way the function definitely has an and only one inverse and I can bother reading the algorithm of sha256 to search for compositions etc.
Apr 1, 2021 at 16:16 comment added hola "a cryptographic use for such strange domains" - privacy preserving encryption would make sense?
Apr 1, 2021 at 15:31 history edited Paul Uszak CC BY-SA 4.0
added 168 characters in body
Apr 1, 2021 at 15:25 history answered Paul Uszak CC BY-SA 4.0