I am reading through Vitalin Buterin's page on R1CS & QAP - https://medium.com/@VitalikButerin/quadratic-arithmetic-programs-from-zero-to-hero-f6d558cea649
I understood upto the part where he gets
$A=\begin{pmatrix} 0&1&0&0&0&0 \\ 0&0&0&1&0&0 \\ 0&1&0&0&1&0 \\ 5&0&0&0&0&1 \\ \end{pmatrix}$
$B=\begin{pmatrix} 0&1&0&0&0&0 \\ 0&1&0&0&0&0 \\ 1&0&0&0&0&0 \\ 1&0&0&0&0&0 \\ \end{pmatrix}$
$C=\begin{pmatrix} 0&0&0&1&0&0 \\ 0&0&0&0&1&0 \\ 0&0&0&0&0&1 \\ 0&0&1&0&0&0 \\ \end{pmatrix}$
Now, when he converts R1CS to QAP, he writes
That is, if we evaluate the polynomials at x=1, then we get our first set of vectors, if we evaluate the polynomials at x=2, then we get our second set of vectors, and so on.
The original sets of vectors A, B & C were not at all created by any x=1, x=2 etc. They had the mapping
$['~one', 'x', '~out', 'sym\_1', 'y', 'sym\_2'] = [ 1, 3, 35, 9, 27, 30]$
i.e. they were calculated using $x = 3$ (which is the root of the polynomial $x^3 + x + 5 = 35$)
So I don't understand how he equates those to sampling at x=1, x=2 etc.
Can someone explain?