Consider a scenario:data owners $C$ sends a $l$ bits value $x$ to parties $P_0$ and $P_1$ via additively secret sharing scheme, for example, $C$ randomly selects $r \in_R \{0, 1\}^l$, and sends $r$ to $P_0$ and $x-r$ to $P_1$. In insecure channel, adversary $\mathcal{A}$ could obtain $r$ and $x-r$ to construct secret $x$ by eavesdroping the channel.
But there a scheme: $C$ sends $\mbox{Enc}_{{pk}_0}(r)$ to $P_0$ and sends $\mbox{Enc}_{{pk}_1}(x-r)$ to $P_1$(i.e. privacy) ,and $C$ authenticates $r$ and $x-r$ by means of digital signature(i.e. authentication). So a secure commutation over an insecure channel is achieved.
My question is:does the above scheme require the assumption of a secure channel?
The key point of this problem is that we use some technologies to implement privacy and authentication on an insecure channel, and this insecure channel can be considered, but not a secure channel. We no longer need the assumption of a secure channel based on our technology, is this right?