So, I'm taking Cryptography I by Dan Boneh on Coursera and I was reviewing the definition of security for a PRF while solving exercises, and I stumbled upon this question from a homework Dan Boneh gave for a winter class of 2020. Where it's cleared stated that F1 is not a secure PRF, but I can't get my head over it.
If $k_1$ and $k_2$ are from the same Keyspace, I'm assuming they are chosen independently, why is this PRF not secure? Is that because we can assume that $k_1$ might be equal to $k_2$? And then query $x = y = 0^n$, that way we could argue the following:
- Receive $z = G((k_1,k_2),(x,y))$, where $G$ is either $F_1$ or a random function.
- Output $b = 1$ if $z = 0^n$ and $0$ otherwise, then
$F_1((k_1,k_2),(0^n,0^n)) = F(k_1, 0^n) ⊕ F(k_2,0^n) = 0^n$
Which would return a non-negligible advantage $(1-2^{-n})$?
Sorry if it doesn't make sense, it's a concept I'm still trying to understand.