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Intuitively I think not because assuming the bit string $x_1,x_2 \sim \{0,1\}^{n/2}$, $x_1 \wedge x_2$ is not uniformly random so if $g$ were still a one-way function then the fact that the definition of one way function requires the input string $x$ to be uniformly random seems unneeded.

But I'm not sure how to construct the $f$ required. I tried the usual $f(x) = 0^{n/2}||f(x_{[1:n/2]})$ but got stuck.

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  • $\begingroup$ Welcome to crypto-SE. I suggest you edit the question, adding the definition of One Way Function assumed in the context. This may help you, and will show the level of formalism expected. $\endgroup$
    – fgrieu
    Feb 10, 2023 at 8:03
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    $\begingroup$ HINT: Suppose that you could invert $g$ with non-negligible probability, could you use this ability to create pseudo-inversions of $f$? $\endgroup$
    – Daniel S
    Feb 10, 2023 at 8:15

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