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I hope this is not off-topic for this SE, as it directly relates to the RSA problem. My background is in quantum information and computation, so please excuse me if my notation doesn't match your community's notation.

What's the idea?

I'm trying to embed the prime factorization problem into the form of a polynomial unconstrained binary optimization (PUBO). To do so, let $p$ and $q$ be two real positive numbers. We can represent these two numbers as binary numbers, which itself can be represented as vectors, $\pmb{p}$ and $\pmb{q}$, where $\pmb{p}$ and $\pmb{q}$ both have $k$ elements. I define a new vector $\pmb{x}$ by concatenating $\pmb{p}$ and $\pmb{q}$ as follows:

$$p_i \in \{ 0,1\}$$ $$q_i \in \{ 0,1\}$$

$$ \pmb{x} = (p_1, \ldots, p_k, q_1, \ldots, q_{k})^T$$

Now I define the following matrix $Q$:

$$Q = \sigma_x \otimes \alpha$$

where $\alpha$ is a $k \times k$ matrix that its elements are defined like this:

$$\alpha_{ij} = 2^{2k - (i+j)}$$ and $$ \sigma_x = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix} $$

This formulation, allows us to make $Q$ in a way that the product of numbers $p$ and $q$ is equal to the expression $\frac{1}{2}\pmb{x}^T Q \pmb{x}$:

$$\frac{1}{2}\pmb{x}^T Q \pmb{x} = pq$$

Now, I can also do this for $(pq)^2$:

$$\frac{1}{4}\pmb{x}^T Q \pmb{x}\pmb{x}^T Q \pmb{x} = (pq)^2$$

Now coming back to our original problem, we want to find the $p$ and $q$ so that:

$$pq = N$$

To do so, we can convert it into this optimization problem:

$$\min_{p,q} f(p,q) = \min_{p,q} (N-pq)^2$$

and using the PUBO form, we can convert $f$ to:

$$f(p,q) = N^2+ (pq)^2 - 2 N pq$$ $$f(p,q) = N^2+ \frac{1}{4}\pmb{x}^T Q \pmb{x}\pmb{x}^T Q \pmb{x} - N \pmb{x}^T Q \pmb{x}$$

Of course, this approach assumes that $\pmb{p}$ and $\pmb{q}$ have the same length of bits. To generalize this, we can simply move the separation point of vector $\pmb{x}$ from middle, one step at the time to get different lengths. This converts the complexity of the problem into:

$$O(N \log(N))$$

To solve this PUBO, I've tried simulated annealing and it works:

import numpy as np
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
from tqdm import tqdm


def beta(N):
    pauli_x = np.array([[0, 1], [1, 0]])

    def matrix_values(i, j):
        return 2**(2*N - (i+1)- (j+1))
    matrix = np.fromfunction(matrix_values, (N, N))

    # tensor product of pauli_x and matrix
    matrix = np.kron(pauli_x, matrix)
    
    return matrix

def preprocess(p, q):
    binary_p = bin(p)[2:]
    binary_q = bin(q)[2:]

    # do a padding to make the length of binary_p and binary_q equal
    if len(binary_p) < len(binary_q):
        binary_p = '0'*(len(binary_q) - len(binary_p)) + binary_p
    elif len(binary_q) < len(binary_p):
        binary_q = '0'*(len(binary_p) - len(binary_q)) + binary_q

    x = np.array(list(binary_p+binary_q), dtype=int)

    return x


def simulated_annealing(B, pq, n_iterations=1000, T_start=100, T_end=0.1):
    # Initialize
    x = np.random.choice([0, 1], size=len(B))
    x[-1] = 1  # q must be odd
    x[len(x)//2] = 1  # p must be odd

    T = T_start
    energies = []
    best_x = x.copy()
    best_H = float('inf')

    # Initial energy calculation
    xBx = x @ B @ x
    H = pq**2 + xBx**2 // 4 - pq * xBx

    # Create tqdm progress bar
    pbar = tqdm(range(n_iterations))
    
    for i in pbar:
        # Generate new state
        j = np.random.randint(0, len(x))
        x_new = x.copy()
        x_new[j] = 1 - x_new[j]  # Flip the bit
        
        # Calculate energy difference efficiently
        delta_xBx = 0
        for k in range(len(x)):
            delta_xBx += B[j, k] * (x_new[j] - x[j]) * (x[k] + x_new[k])
        

        xBx_new = xBx + delta_xBx
        H_new = pq**2 + xBx_new**2 // 4 - pq * xBx_new
        
        # Calculate energy difference efficiently using vector operations
        delta_x = x_new - x
        delta_xBx = 2 * (delta_x @ B @ x) + (delta_x @ B @ delta_x)
        
        xBx_new = xBx + delta_xBx
        H_new = pq**2 + xBx_new**2 // 4 - pq * xBx_new

        # Calculate energy difference
        delta_H = (H_new - H) / pq**2
        
        # Decide whether to accept the new state
        if delta_H < 0 or np.random.random() < np.exp(-delta_H / T):
            x = x_new
            H = H_new
            xBx = xBx_new
        
        # Cool down
        T = T_start * (T_end / T_start) ** (i / (n_iterations - 1))
        energies.append(H)

        # Update best state
        if H < best_H:
            best_x = x.copy()
            best_H = H
        if best_H == 0:
            break
        # Update tqdm description with current best_H
        pbar.set_description(f"Best H: {best_H:.4e}")

    energies = np.array(energies)

    return best_x, best_H, energies

p , q = 241, 251
pq = p*q
L = (np.floor(np.log2(float(pq))).astype(int)) //2 + 1

B = beta(L)

x, H, energies = simulated_annealing(B, pq, n_iterations=10_000, T_start=1e-1, T_end=1e-5)


# get back the values of p and q
p_o = int(''.join(map(str, x[:L])), 2)
q_o = int(''.join(map(str, x[L:])), 2)
print(H)
print(p_o, q_o)

plt.plot(energies, color='b', linestyle='-', label='Energy')
plt.yscale('symlog')
plt.xscale('symlog')
plt.xlabel('Iteration')
plt.ylabel('Energy')
plt.hlines(0,xmin=0, xmax=1.4*len(energies), color='black', linestyle='--', label='Optimal Solution')
plt.xlim(0, 1.4*len(energies))
plt.legend(loc = 'center left')
plt.show()

enter image description here

Note that my code assumes the same length of bits for both numbers, but as mentioned before, it can be generalized pretty easily. This code successfully factors the number 60491 to 241 and 251.

What's the catch?

The catch is that the simulated annealing is not a good way of optimization for large $N$. There are far better Ising machines for these types of tasks, but the problem is the fact that they are designed to work with QUBOs, not PUBOs. But now, I tell my suggestion:

We should be able to solve this using a modified version of the Simulated Bifurcation algorithm.

It is highly parallelizable, and it reaches to the solution in orders of magnitude less time. I also think there are tons of other optimizations in the embedding itself. Plus, I believe we should be able to combine this approach with classical algorithms such as Sieve of Eratosthenes. Please tell what you think about my approach. Any comment would be greatly appreciated.

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    $\begingroup$ I don't get why this is tagged simulation. Perhaps it's time to define this tag. I don't quite get it's precise meaning in classical cryptography, much less in a quantum context. [update: the following comment explains that perfectly! But I'm afraid most existing simulation questions use it in a different sense than in the present question]. $\endgroup$
    – fgrieu
    Commented Jul 12 at 10:47
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    $\begingroup$ @fgrieu Because I used the "simulated annealing", and I'm proposing the use of "simulated bifurcation". Although I'm not sure if the definition of simulation for this SE is related to what I think of "simulation". $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 12 at 10:49
  • $\begingroup$ While I don't know how much your suggested parallelization would improve this complexity $O(N \log N)$ note that you need to get it down to below number field sieve complexity of (handwaving approximation) $\exp(\log N^{1/3} (\log \log N)^{2/3})$ to be competitive. The current complexity is worse than even trial division which is $O(\sqrt{N}).$ $\endgroup$
    – kodlu
    Commented Jul 13 at 1:15
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ That's the "space complexity" of number of qubits, not the time complexity. @kodlu $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 13 at 12:17
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    $\begingroup$ One issue with this modeling of the factorization problem is that there are a lot of local minima, without any particular relationship between them. For example, if your method stumbles on a state with energy 10,000, that corresponds to a factorization of $N+100$ or $N-100$; there's no reason to expect that factorization is anywhere close to the factorization of $N$. It may work out for modest $N$; for the size of $N$ we would be interested in in practice ($2^{1024}$ and up), I believe that no algorithm with an exponential running time would be practical. $\endgroup$
    – poncho
    Commented Jul 15 at 18:36

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