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This question already has an answer here:

An efficient bilinear map is given by $ e $: $G_{1}$ × $G_{1}$ → $G_{T} $.

How can i prove this equation with the help of an example.

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marked as duplicate by tylo, DrLecter, Maeher, fgrieu, user6961 Jan 15 '14 at 17:55

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • $\begingroup$ You don't need to prove. You need to evaluate its correctness, i guess $\endgroup$ – curious Jan 15 '14 at 16:13
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    $\begingroup$ Why are you asking the same question twice within 5 hours? And then you are even more unclear than in How to Mathematically Prove the Bilinear Pairing Properties $\endgroup$ – tylo Jan 15 '14 at 16:22
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry for the duplicate question. $\endgroup$ – Raginisingh Jan 16 '14 at 8:18