I can use an example: the case where we have $x$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$. The quotient is $1$, a non-negligible function. However, we can't conclude that all functions $f(x)/g(x)$ are also negligible.
How can I formally prove this?
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Sign up to join this communityI can use an example: the case where we have $x$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$. The quotient is $1$, a non-negligible function. However, we can't conclude that all functions $f(x)/g(x)$ are also negligible.
How can I formally prove this?
This is false, take $f(x) = 2^{-2x}$ and $g(x) = 2^{-x}$.