I'm self-studying Katz' book (2nd ed), and I have a small question about Theorem 3.32, which says:
If $F$ is a pseudorandom permutation, then $CTR$ mode is $CPA-$secure.
They present a proof there, but I think that another proof is viable, which is basically a corollary of a theorem they presented earlier.
My proof is the following. Consider Theorem 3.31, which says
If $F$ is a pseudorandom function, then $m\mapsto \langle r, F_k(r)\oplus m \rangle$ ($k$ is the key, $r$ is uniformly chosen) is a $CPA-$secure encryption scheme.
So, why don't we simply prove that $G_k(\cdot)$ defined as $$G_k({\tt ctr}) = \langle F_k({\tt ctr}+1), F_k({\tt ctr}+2),\ldots,F_k({\tt ctr}+\ell)\rangle $$ is pseudorandom? we would have by the cited theorem that $CTR$ mode (which is the encryption scheme described in the theorem using $G_k$) would be $CPA-$secure. Of course, showing that $G_k$ is pseudorandom if $F_k$ is does not impose a problem, since any distinguisher to $G_k$ can be turned into a distinguisher to $F_k$.
Everything makes sense, I don't see why this proof would not work and why did they bother writing a 2 pages long proof for what could be a corollary! (the only thing I think could fail is that the theorem used was proven for length-preserving $F_k$, but -I think- the proof also applies to the general case).
Anyone can point me to a mistake in my argument? btw, this could also prove that $OFB$ mode is $CPA-$secure.
Thanks in advance