Let $G: \{0, 1\}^n → \{0, 1\}^m$ be a PRG. We construct a function $G': \{0, 1\}^{m + n} → \{0, 1\}^{2m}$ defined as follows
$G'(x || y) = x || (G(y) ⊕ x)$
for all $x ∊ \{0, 1\}^m$ and $y ∊ \{0, 1\}^n$. (The symbol || denotes here the concatenation of binary strings.)
Is $G'$ a PRG?
I believe that it is not, but I could easily be wrong.
I know, given a random string s of length $2m$ (split into equal length strings $s_1$ and $s_2$), that $s_1$ would be equivalent to $x$, and that $s_2 \oplus x$ would be equivalent to $G(y)$. But since $G(y)$ is indistinguishable from $U_m$, I'm having trouble reaching the conclusion of my contradiction.
I'm still relatively new to all of this, so any help would be appreciated.