The textbook proof for Elgamal encryption basically reduces to the Decisional Diffie-Hellman assumption (DDH).
Elgamal: $Gen(.): x \xleftarrow{R} \mathbb{Z}_p$; $Enc(m,g^x): r \xleftarrow{R} \mathbb{Z}_p, U= m.(g^x)^r, V = g^r$; $Dec(U,V,x): m = U/V^x$.
Suppose I prove the secure of Elgamal (in the CPA security model) as follows:
Since $r$ is uniformly random, $(g^x)^r$ is also uniformly random. Thus, $m.(g^x)^r$ follows a uniform distribution. Given two message $m_0, m_1$ during the Challenge phase, the corresponding ciphertext $c_0$ and $c_1$ follow the same uniform distribution. Therefore, the advantage of the adversary is the same as distinguishing two identical distributions, which is 0.
Can someone tell me what is amiss in the proof above? Why is it (or isn't it) sufficient to show that the ciphertexts following a uniform distribution, i.e. indistinguishable from a truly random value?