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This question already has an answer here:

Are all or any hash functions evenly distributed?

For example: if you had every combination of 256 bits and ran that through SHA256, would that produce approximately 1 of each combination, or would there be peaks?

Are distributions of the hashes calculable without going through the permutations in lower bit sizes?

Is evenness of the distribution of a hash function impacted by the length of the input vs the resultant hash length?

Which hashing functions are most evenly distributed? (e.g. as close to 1 of each equal-bit-length combination possible)

Edit: The linked "duplicate" doesn't come close to addressing all these questions.

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marked as duplicate by kelalaka, Maarten Bodewes Mar 15 at 0:20

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

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https://crypto.stackexchange.com/a/12511/23115 gives the answer regarding uniformity. If you stick to the 256 bit input however, you will only get $ 1-\frac{1} {e} $ of the possible outputs. This is due to the hash acting as a pseudo random function and collisions occurring. This behaviour can also be called surjective.

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  • $\begingroup$ Wow, that was fast! $\endgroup$ – Paul Uszak Mar 15 at 0:27
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    $\begingroup$ That's not what surjective means. $\endgroup$ – Squeamish Ossifrage Mar 15 at 0:33

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