Suppose that $x,y \in \mathbb{Z}_n$ with $\gcd(x−y,n) = 1$. Prove that for any $u,v \in \mathbb{Z}_n$ there is at most one affine permutation mapping $x$ to $u$ and $y$ to $v$.
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1$\begingroup$ Welcome to Cryptography. This is clearly a dump of homework. Where you stuck? $\endgroup$ – kelalaka Mar 31 '19 at 9:56
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$\begingroup$ start with the definition of a permutation. $\endgroup$ – kodlu Apr 1 '19 at 23:04
