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I am wondering whether or not it is known that the following problem is computationally infeasible while working in a group for which the DDH (or CDH or DL) assumption holds (as usual, g is a group generator): Given the input tuple $(g, g^{\alpha_1}, g^{\alpha_2}, g^{y}, g^{z})$ where $z \in \{y \alpha_1, y \alpha_2\}$, the desired output is $g^{\alpha_i}$ (or simply $i$) such that $z = y\alpha_i$.

If it is not known, I would appreciate any suggestions for a reduction based proof.

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  • $\begingroup$ This is tightly equivalent to DDH. $\endgroup$
    – Gee Law
    Sep 18 '20 at 4:20
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The two given tuples are computationally indistinguishable. Here's a proof

Let tuples $T_1=(g, g^{\alpha_1}, g^{\alpha_2}, g^y, g^{\alpha_1y})$ and $T_2=(g, g^{\alpha_1}, g^{\alpha_2}, g^y, g^{\alpha_2y})$

Lets take a tuple $T_3=(g, g^{\alpha_1}, g^{\alpha_2}, g^y, g^r)$ where $r \overset{$}\leftarrow \mathcal{R}$. That is, for the purpose of the proof we generate a tuple with the last element being a random element of the group.

It's easy to see that $T_1 \approx T_3$ ($\approx$: notation for compuational indistinguishability) because of DDH assumption. Same way, $T_2 \approx T_3$ as well. Since we know that computational indistinguishability is transitive, that means $T_1 \approx T_2$.

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  • $\begingroup$ One may want to note when reading this answer that computational indistinguishability is in general only transitive for a constant number of hops. $\endgroup$
    – SEJPM
    Sep 18 '20 at 9:02
  • $\begingroup$ @SEJPM: Could you explain why? I always thought it also worked for poly-many hops (this is how, for example, the hybrid argument works). The discussion in this lecture note also seems to agree. $\endgroup$ Sep 18 '20 at 15:07
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    $\begingroup$ @Occams_Trimmer It only works for poly-many hops if all the hops can be bound by the same negligble function. An example for a family of functions where each is negligible but the sum isn't is: $\varepsilon_i(n)=\begin{cases}1&i\geq n\\0&\text{else}\end{cases}$. Obviously each is individually neglgigble but if you consider $$p(n)=\sum^n_i \varepsilon_i(n)$$ it is obviously constantly $1$ and thus not negligible. Though also note that most proofs where an author errornously assumed that poly-many hops can be done can usually be fixed. $\endgroup$
    – SEJPM
    Sep 18 '20 at 18:55
  • $\begingroup$ In the non-uniform model, the assumptions (finitely many) allow transitivity to go through for poly-many hops. In the uniform model, a strict proof is written as a probabilistic reduction and "poly-many hops" do not exist in the proof and are a pedagody device. Usually the proof can be uniform (i.e., written as probabilistic reduction) and it's routine to use "poly-many hops" exposition (or perhaps the authors don't care about uniform security). $\endgroup$
    – Gee Law
    Sep 21 '20 at 5:51

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