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In the note of ["Ring-SIS and Ideal Lattices by Noah Stephens-Davidowitz (for Vinod Vaikuntanathan’s class", footnote 3], it has written:


3 The ring $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x^n + 1)$, ideal lattices, and a secure collision-resistant hash function

Recall that our attack on $h_a$ over $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x^n - 1)$ relied on the fact that $x^n - 1$ has a nontrivial factor over the integers, $x^n - 1 = (x - 1)(x^{n-1} + x^{n-2} + \cdots + 1)$. So, it is natural to try replacing $x^n - 1$ with an irreducible polynomial. Indeed, one can easily show that $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(p(x))$ for some polynomial $p(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ is an integral domain if and only if $p$ is irreducible.

We strongly prefer sparse polynomials with small coefficients (both because they are easy to work with and because this ensures that our ring has nice "geometric" properties). Since $x^n - 1$ failed, we try $x^n + 1$. This is irreducible over $\mathbb{Z}$ if and only if $n$ is a power of two. ...


If $p > 1$ is a non-trivial odd factor of $n$, then $x^{\frac{n}{p}} + 1$ is a non-trivial factor of $x^n + 1$.

If $n$ has no odd factors, then $x^n + 1$ is the $2n$th cyclotomic polynomial-i.e., the minimal polynomial over $\mathbb{Z}$ of any primitive $2n$th root of unity.

I know a little about cyclotomic polynomials. Can someone explain or refer me to a reference for these arguments.

How to reach to the first point? Why it says $2n$th cyclotomic polynomial and not $n$th one?

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If $p>1$ is a non-trivial odd factor of $n$, then $x^{n/p}+1$ is a non-trivial factor of $x^n+1$.

Any root $r$ of $x^{n/p}+1$ satisfies $r^{n/p} = -1$. For such a root, we have that $$r^n+1 = (r^{n/p})^p + 1 = (-1)^p + 1 = 0,$$ as $p$ is odd. You probably need an argument that all of the roots of $x^{n/p}+1$ are simple as well (they are). I'll leave you to figure this out though.

If $n$ has no odd factors, then $x^n+1$ is the $2n$th cyclotomic polynomial-i.e., the minimal polynomial over $\mathbb{Z}$ of any primitive $2n$th root of unity.

Recall the definition of a cyclotomic polynomial.

The $n$th cyclotomic polynomial $\Phi_n(x)$ is the unique irreducible polynomial with integer coefficients that is a divisor of $x^n-1$ and is not a divisor of $x^k-1$ for any $k<n$.

So, $x^n+1$ is a divisor of $x^{\color{red}{2n}}-1 = (x^n+1)(x^n-1)$, hence we call it the ${\color{red}{2n}}$th cyclotomic polynomial. Note that the $n$th cyclotomic polynomial is never degree $n$. It is instead degree $\varphi(n)$, where $\varphi$ is Euler's totient function. You can also see that

$$ x^{2n}-1 = (x^n+1)(x^n-1) = \Phi_{2n}(x)(x^n-1). $$ It seems quite likely that $x^n-1$ factors further (it is at least divisible by $x-1$). This hints at the more general relationship

$$ x^n-1 = \prod_{d\mid n}\Phi_d(x), $$ true for any $n\in\mathbb{N}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Why do we need to argue all the roots of $x^{n/p}+1$ are all simple? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 16 at 14:57
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    $\begingroup$ Focus on a particular root $r$. We know that $x^{n/p}+1$ and $x^n+1$ both have this root, so they factor as $x^{n/p}+1 = (x-r)^{a_r}g_r(x)$ and $x^n+1 = (x-r)^{b_r} h_r(x)$ for some $a_r, b_r\geq 1$. If we knew that $a_r \leq b_r$ for each root, we are done. But if there is a root $r$ such that $a_r > b_r$, the non-trivial factor $(x-r)^{a_r}$ is not a non-trivial factor of $x^n+1$. So we need some argument that this doesn't happen. One that would work in this case (because it is true) is showing that, for each $r$, $a_r = 1$, as we already know that $b_r \geq 1$. $\endgroup$
    – Mark Schultz-Wu
    Commented Nov 16 at 18:55
  • $\begingroup$ I didn't notice considering the degree of the root of $x^{n/p}+1$ compared to $x^{n}+1$ because I just want to find a root of $x^{n}+1$ to say thet this is not a irreducible oplynomial. Is this approach correct (and better)? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 17 at 11:03
  • $\begingroup$ Let's assume, for the sake of contradiction, r is not a simple root of $f(x)=x^{n/p}+1$. So we must have $f'(r)=(n/p)r^{n/p−1}=0\Rightarrow r=0$. This is a contradiction as $r^{n/p}=-1$. Is this argument correct? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 17 at 11:07
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    $\begingroup$ Essentially. It’s very close to the standard argument (see here for an example). $\endgroup$
    – Mark Schultz-Wu
    Commented Nov 17 at 16:22

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