Taking into account this paper I will write here a definition that the authors provide.
$\textbf{Definition:}$ (linear secret sharing scheme). A $(t,n)$ secret sharing scheme is a linear secret sharing scheme when the $n$ shares, $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ can be presented as in Equation $\ref{5}$
$$(v_1,v_2,...,v_n)=(k_1,k_2,...,k_t)H,\label{5}\tag{5}$$
where $H$ is a public $t × n$ matrix whose any $t × t$ submatrix is not singular. The vector $(k_1,k_2,...,k_n)$ is randomly chosen by the dealer.
According to Definition, we can see that Shamir’s $(t, n)$ secret sharing scheme is a linear scheme. Let
$$f(x)=a_0+a_1x+\cdots+a_{t-1}x^{t-1}, \label{6}\tag{6}$$
The shares $v_i = f(i)$, $i = 1, 2, ..., n$ can be presented as in Equation $\ref{7}$
$$(v_1,v_2,...,v_n)=(a_0,a_1,...,a_{t-1})H,\label{7}\tag{7}$$
How is $\ref{7}$ equivalent to $\ref{6}$? in some definitions it quotes $y_i= f(x_i)$ or $y_i= f(x_i)\bmod{p}$ how do they differ with $\ref{7}$?